Did Jesus die for all men everywhere?

The view that when Christ died he died for all men everywhere is a very popular view in many denominations in America namely; the Foursquare Church, Methodists, Assemblies of God, All Pentecostals, and the Calvary Chapel. Because of the amount of churches who believe this, there may be a tendency to base your view on tradition rather then what the Word of God says on the matter. Additionally the reason this view is so popular is the idea that God will save all men everywhere is soothing to men’s conscience, and to prove anything to the contrary, would have severe ramifications, culturally, in biblical interpretation and in some cases financially. Nonetheless, we are not called to soothe men’s consciences, but to rightly divide the Word of God (2Tim 2:15) and to be truthful to the message that has been passed down to us (Jude 3). In spite of the popular view, I affirm that Christ died for a particular people and those people will not fail to be saved.In the debates that I have seen, and the few that I have participated in; I see a trend. Whenever someone wants to defend the idea that Christ died for all men, they will gravitate to verse that contain the word “all” or “world” in it. I will address two of these verses.

1) John 3:16: For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him should not perish but have everlasting life.

This is a verse most commonly used by those that hold the “Christ died for all view”. They will emphasize “Christ so loved the world” and use that as a proof text that Jesus died for all men everywhere. Let’s explore this issue: if Christ died for all men past, present, and future, does that mean he saved those who came under his wrath? So he died for the three thousand men he commanded that Moses killed after the Golden Calf incident? (Exodus 22:27) He died for Achan? (Joshua 7), He died for the Amalakites that he sent Saul to kill? (1st Samuel 15). John 3:16 does not say that Christ died for all men everywhere; it says that whoever believes will be saved. And of course we know that not everyone believes. What does world mean in this context? One of the main questions that you ask in biblical interpretation is “to whom was Jesus speaking to in this passage?” The Jews. Concerning who? The Gentile nations. The Lord up until that time was exclusively the God of Israel but according to the Old Testament Prophets there would come a time when The Lord would extend his hand of Grace to Gentiles as well Isaiah 2:3 says It shall come to pass in the latter days that the mountain of the house of the LORD shall be established as the highest of the mountains, and shall be lifted up above the hills; and all the nations shall flow to it,. And 56:4 says-8 The Lord GOD, who gathers the outcasts of Israel, declares, I will gather yet others to him besides those already gathered.” And we can see this happen with the Samaritan woman at the well (John 4:7-42). The Syrophonician woman in (Mark 8:25-30), The Roman Centurion’s Servant (Luke 7:1-10) and the entire book of Acts. In light of that Christ loved the world in the sense of all people groups not just Jews as it had been believed for centuries.2)

1st Timothy 4:10-For to this end we toil and strive,2 because we have our hope set on the living God, who is the Savior of all people, especially of those who believe. This passage has also been interpreted by some to mean all men everywhere; in this case they would be partly correct in the sense that the coming, death, burial and resurrection of Jesus have benefited all men. Here is how. In Romans 3:25 it says God put Christ forward as propitiation by his blood. According to the definition of propitiation (http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/propitiation). Christ dying on the Cross was a primarily focused on satisfying the Father’s justice so that he could forgive us. It would have been impossible for God to forgive us without the atoning sacrifice of His Son. So Christ’s death in the most literal sense saved us by satisfying God justice by being the once for all sufficient sacrifice for all men and in so doing becoming the only Savior for mankind like Acts 4:16 says: And there is salvation in no one else, for there is no other name under heaven given among men by which we must be saved." One commentator says it this way:” By his providences he protects the persons, and prolongs the lives, of the children of men. (2.) He has a general good-will to the eternal salvation of all men thus far that he is not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance. He desires not the death of sinners; he is thus far the Savior of all men that none are left in the same desperate condition that fallen angels are in. The Major question is: Is the saving Grace of God extended to all men? Or are there a particular people that will be saved? There is a verse in Matthew 1 that may help us a little.

Matthew 1:20-21 But as he considered these things, behold, yan angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream, saying, “Joseph, son of David, do not fear to take Mary as your wife, for that which is conceived in her is from the Holy Spirit. 21 She will bear a son, and you shall call his name Jesus, for he will save his people from their sins.” The last sentence of this verse is key. Jesus will save his people from their sins. The point is there are people that are his and Jesus knew who they were already and he came to save those people from their sins. Evidence of this is found in John 10:25-28- Jesus answered them, “I told you, and you do not believe. The works that I do ln my Father’s name bear witness about me, 26 but you do not believe because you are not part of my flock. 27 my sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me. 28 I give them eternal life, and they will never perish, and no one will snatch them out of my hand. 29 My Father, who has given them to me, is greater than all, and no one is able to snatch them out of tthe Father’s hand. I and the Father are one.” and John 10:14-15- 14 I am the good shepherd. I know my own and omy own know me, just as the Father knows me and I know the Father; and I lay down my life for the sheep. Matthew 1:20-21 doesn’t say he will save people based on their choosing of him because Ephesians 1:4 says that he chose us in him before the foundations of the world. We did not choose him he chose us. This does not mean that he looked through time to see who would chose him and them predestinate to choose them because Romans 9:10-11 says that God’s calling is not based upon what we have don or who we are because Romans 2:11 says that God does not show favoritism, but it’s totally because of His own purpose and election.Do we not see this in the Old Testament? Out of the whole world he chose Abraham to bless (Genesis 15) From him was Isaac, not Ishmael although he was Abraham’s first born that got God’s blessing neither did any other of Abraham’s children (Genesis 25) get the blessing but Isaac only. Isaac had two sons Jacob and Esau. Although Esau was the oldest the blessing went to Jacob. This was not based on Esau’s behavior But God’s election (Romans 9:10-11). From Jacob came the children of Israel who were not chosen because of their faithfulness but because God if faithful Deuteronomy 7:7-9.

Why is it wrong to say that Christ died for everyone? Firstly, Christ’s own words contradict that view. For example, John 17:9 I am praying for them. jI am not praying for the world but for those kwhom you have given me, for lthey are yours. Here Christ is referring to certain body of people given to him from God the Father, he did not pray for the world in general. Secondly, If Christ represented the whole human race then the whole human race would be saved, but the bible teaches that only a part of the human race will be saved (Matthew 7:14). If we say that Christ represented everyone then we will have to say that Christ doesn’t save anyone, but only gives people a chance to be saved and that it is up to them to take it or leave it. This is the common view today but the Bible is against it. Christ did not die to give everyone or anyone a chance to be saved, but he suffered and died to accomplish salvation for his elect people.What do we say to this? Is God unjust for saving some people and not all? Absolutely not. He isn’t because we are all sinners. God throughout history was continually calling out to his people the same way he calls out to all people in Jesus but they always rejected him Jeremiah 6:16-17 thus says the LORD: “ Stand by the roads, and look, And ask for the ancient paths, Where the good way is; and walk in it, and find rest for your souls. But they said, ‘We will not walk in it.’ I set watchmen over you, saying, ‘ Pay attention to jthe sound of the trumpet!’ But they said, ‘We will not pay attention.’ Isaiah 65:2- I spread out my hands all the day to a rebellious people, who walk in a way that is not good, following their own devices; And Acts 7:51- You stiff-necked people, uncircumcised in heart and ears, you always resist the Holy Spirit. fAs your fathers did, so do you. God offers all men salvation but no one takes God up on his offer. Because of this all men justly stand condemned under the Lord’s righteous anger, and if God sent all men to hell and didn’t save anyone he would still is just because as sinners that is what we deserve. But, although we were enemies of God (Romans 1:30) in love he sent Jesus for men who were not looking for him and because of His sacrifice he purchased salvation for his people. How should we react to this? Do we spend our lives trying to figure out whether we are elect or not? No! The question you should ask yourself is do I love Jesus? Do I enjoy his word, and look to it so that I may be like Jesus. Am I growing in Holiness and repentance? If not? Repent and believe the Gospel and cry out to God until he changes you. Do not concern yourself with an issue that belongs to God alone. Repent, believe, and throw yourself completely on Jesus because he is abounding in mercy.